Mark Ingram
06-14-2007, 03:44 PM
I just heard on the radio this morning (on my drive to work) that a man convicted of rape 17 years ago was exonerated by dna evidence and released this week.
The story got me wondering:
How is it that DNA evidence collected less than 1 week after Nicole Simpson was killed was too degraded to convict O.J. but DNA collected from a crime commited 17 years ago was used to prove that a man didn't commit the crime close to 2 decades ago?
Aside from politics, celebrity, and bribery, what am I missing here? And why isn't some prosecutor looking to make a name for him/her self investigating this?
The story got me wondering:
How is it that DNA evidence collected less than 1 week after Nicole Simpson was killed was too degraded to convict O.J. but DNA collected from a crime commited 17 years ago was used to prove that a man didn't commit the crime close to 2 decades ago?
Aside from politics, celebrity, and bribery, what am I missing here? And why isn't some prosecutor looking to make a name for him/her self investigating this?