I did a search in this forum and came up bust, so here's one for the experts:
My Fender has always seemed to be quiet for a 45w amp, especially compared to my 50w Marshall. I know that there are a host of reasons for a diff. in SPL. Anyway, I connected a scope to the speaker terminal and ran a signal into the amp's input. Regardless of frequency, the sine wave output was clean until about "3" on the volume knob. The amplitude was 10v pk to pk. Anything beyond 3, the signal just started clipping, becoming almost a square wave. The amp did seem to get slightly louder, but not much.
Using 10v pk to pk, I calculated the RMS value, squared the result and divided by the speaker impedance of 8 ohms (result was ~6 watts). I forgot that speaker impedance varies by frequency, so I will redo using an 8 ohm resistor. Is this process of measuring voltage with a scope and calculating power (using a resistor though) accurate?
Thanks.
My Fender has always seemed to be quiet for a 45w amp, especially compared to my 50w Marshall. I know that there are a host of reasons for a diff. in SPL. Anyway, I connected a scope to the speaker terminal and ran a signal into the amp's input. Regardless of frequency, the sine wave output was clean until about "3" on the volume knob. The amplitude was 10v pk to pk. Anything beyond 3, the signal just started clipping, becoming almost a square wave. The amp did seem to get slightly louder, but not much.
Using 10v pk to pk, I calculated the RMS value, squared the result and divided by the speaker impedance of 8 ohms (result was ~6 watts). I forgot that speaker impedance varies by frequency, so I will redo using an 8 ohm resistor. Is this process of measuring voltage with a scope and calculating power (using a resistor though) accurate?
Thanks.
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