With respect to coupling caps in an audio circuit, I just watched an old timer's video on the subject where he has a capacitor bank and clips in different value caps to demonstrate the filtering effects of lower value = less bass. (his little bread boarded amp was transistor). He states at the end that "the minimum value capacitor suitable for passing all audio frequencies in an audio amplifier is 0.047mF"
I don't know if this is true, but if it is why do we see .1mF in coupling stages all the time? Is it when we want blocking caps with no filtering?
I ask because I am trying to figure out why A) Fender changed the PI to output caps from the usual .1 to .022 on a AB165 Bassman. Wouldn't that chop off a lot of low end? B) Why someone who supposedly knows says to change the cap to the PI from .1 to .001, again doesn't that seem like a lot of low end will be cut?
I don't know if this is true, but if it is why do we see .1mF in coupling stages all the time? Is it when we want blocking caps with no filtering?
I ask because I am trying to figure out why A) Fender changed the PI to output caps from the usual .1 to .022 on a AB165 Bassman. Wouldn't that chop off a lot of low end? B) Why someone who supposedly knows says to change the cap to the PI from .1 to .001, again doesn't that seem like a lot of low end will be cut?
Comment