I've got a Pignose G40V, and I want to replace the 6L6 power tubes with a pair of JJ 6V6S. I can rebias the amp for the tubes easily enough, but I'm curious about the difference in output impedance between the two types of tube. The output transformer, with the 6L6 tubes, has two speaker taps, for 4ohm and 8ohm. The speaker I'm using right now is 8ohm. When swapping in 6V6 tubes, is the impedance seen by the transformer higher or lower than with the 6L6 tubes?
In other words, will the speaker taps want to see higher or lower loads than they're currently labelled? Does the impedance seen by the transformer change enough that I should I plug the 8ohm speaker I have into the 4ohm jack? Or would it be the other way, and I should plug a 4ohm cabinet into the 8ohm jack? Or should I not worry about it?
Also, along the same lines, I've got a Gibson GA-8 that runs two 6V6 tubes in parallel. How does that affect the relationship between tubes -- OT -- speaker? I've looked a bit at the Angela Super 6V6 amp, which is very close design-wise to my GA-8, and they say the primary impedance required is half that of a single 6V6 amp. So if I wanted to pull one 6V6 from my GA-8, am I correct in thinking that, since the primary impedance at the OT would be doubled, I should then use a 16ohm speaker instead of the stock 8ohm?
This is one of the aspects of tube amp theory I'm still shaky on, so I appreciate anyone helping educate me on this!
In other words, will the speaker taps want to see higher or lower loads than they're currently labelled? Does the impedance seen by the transformer change enough that I should I plug the 8ohm speaker I have into the 4ohm jack? Or would it be the other way, and I should plug a 4ohm cabinet into the 8ohm jack? Or should I not worry about it?
Also, along the same lines, I've got a Gibson GA-8 that runs two 6V6 tubes in parallel. How does that affect the relationship between tubes -- OT -- speaker? I've looked a bit at the Angela Super 6V6 amp, which is very close design-wise to my GA-8, and they say the primary impedance required is half that of a single 6V6 amp. So if I wanted to pull one 6V6 from my GA-8, am I correct in thinking that, since the primary impedance at the OT would be doubled, I should then use a 16ohm speaker instead of the stock 8ohm?
This is one of the aspects of tube amp theory I'm still shaky on, so I appreciate anyone helping educate me on this!
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