Many (many) websites and fairly authoritative texts I have read on guitar effects and clipping techniques have stated that soft (overdrive like) clipping can be achieved by placing clipping diodes in the feedback path of an op-amp (tube screamer) while distortion is achieved by shorting the opamps output to GND via two (or more) back to back diodes (DS-1). I have read this and believed it (and indeed repeated it to others).
The website below is one such source:
Design Your Own Distortion | General Guitar Gadgets
No offence to the author but it turns out this is a load of horse. In fact, either configuration produces identical results. Any real difference is just down to EQ.
Couple of examples.
Soft clipping schematisc and resultant waveforms. See the alleged soft clipping schematic on the left and the alleged hard clipping schematic on the right. Note that output waveforms are identical:
Hard clipping schematics and resultant waveforms. See the alleged soft clipping schematic on the left and the alleged hard clipping schematic on the right (I simply removed the filter caps). Note that output waveforms are identical:
If you are so inclined and do the maths, this is absolutely the expected behaviour. So, how did this daft nonsense get punted around and become accepted as true? Am I missing something?
Cheers,
iep
The website below is one such source:
Design Your Own Distortion | General Guitar Gadgets
No offence to the author but it turns out this is a load of horse. In fact, either configuration produces identical results. Any real difference is just down to EQ.
Couple of examples.
Soft clipping schematisc and resultant waveforms. See the alleged soft clipping schematic on the left and the alleged hard clipping schematic on the right. Note that output waveforms are identical:
Hard clipping schematics and resultant waveforms. See the alleged soft clipping schematic on the left and the alleged hard clipping schematic on the right (I simply removed the filter caps). Note that output waveforms are identical:
If you are so inclined and do the maths, this is absolutely the expected behaviour. So, how did this daft nonsense get punted around and become accepted as true? Am I missing something?
Cheers,
iep
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