Assuming the choice was based purely on audio engineering, any idea why Gibson would choose to use 28 ga on their low impedance les paul recording bass?
For a given number of turns, it seems that larger gauge would put some turns farther out from the stronger magnetic field close to the magnet, thereby lessening signal output.
On the other hand, there would be less noise build up on a coil with a lower DC resistance. But, if mag field intensity falls off as the square of the distance and noise current falls off by Ohms law as a first order I = V/R, a worse signal to noise ratio, ensues, it seems to me.
So why did Gibson use 28 ga?
Thanks for any thoughts.
Dan
For a given number of turns, it seems that larger gauge would put some turns farther out from the stronger magnetic field close to the magnet, thereby lessening signal output.
On the other hand, there would be less noise build up on a coil with a lower DC resistance. But, if mag field intensity falls off as the square of the distance and noise current falls off by Ohms law as a first order I = V/R, a worse signal to noise ratio, ensues, it seems to me.
So why did Gibson use 28 ga?
Thanks for any thoughts.
Dan
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