OK, here goes. . .
Well gang, it’s time to teach the “curious, recently retired ‘ex-accountant’ layman newbie winder” more. Hopefully, just enough to make him a danger to himself!
How is inductance related to resistance and magnet strength in a pickup in terms of output of the pickup (in layman speak as much as possible)? In the context of guitar pickups, my layman understanding of inductance is the ability of a ferrous metallic object in motion (plucked electric guitar string) to induce current in a conductive material (p/u wire coil) when inside a magnetic field (AlNiCo magnets).
Let’s us one of my recent single coil winds as an example.
Strat style single coil p/u:
Bobbin height: .4375”
Magnets: AlNiCo 5
Wire: 42AWG SPN
Turns: 8,600
Resistance: 6,350 ohms (I am assuming my cheapo multi meter is measuring DCR, but probably not)
Inductance: 2.30 henries (before charging the magnets)
Inductance: 2.60 henries (after charging the magnets)
Back to the question(s). Can there be a valid inductance measurement without the magnets being charged? I’m guessing yes, but that the pickup would not work with the 2.3 henries (from above) without the magnets being charged, even though many spec’s you’ll see on the internet (Fender, et al) will have pickups with inductance values below 2.3 henries. Would it be fair to say that “most” of the inductance reading in henries is attributable to the coil characteristics versus the magnet strength/charge?
In the above case, if the magnetic strength was backed off from the current full charge levels (~ 1,100mT – 1,300mT) to , say half, would the output (measured by the ear listening to the p/u through an amp) be about half, even though the henries may still be in the 2.4 – 2.5 range?
I’m guessing my measurement tools are at least so-so OK as I measured a couple of Fender p/u’s to get some baseline type comparisons and they seem reasonably similar (I think). They measured as follows:
Fender “Texas Specials” in a SRV Signature Series Strat (middle p/u):
Resistance: 6,180 ohms
Inductance: 2.51 henries
Magnet charge: +/- 1200mT (depending on the specific magnet)
Fender Custom Shop “Fat 50’s (middle p/u):
Resistance: 6,150 ohms
Inductance: 2.35 henries
Magnet charge: +/- 1100mT (depending on the specific magnet)
My measurements do not appear to be miles off the published values when you take into consideration that they have been in use for number of years, environmental variables and lower quality test equipment.
With the inductance, what is it in the coil wind (more tension/less tension, more tpl/less tpl, higher/lower bobbin height) that would produce an inductance measurement for a given resistance that is above the manufacturer spec detail even before the p/u is magnetized? How far could you realistically back off a full charge on the magnets and still have an acceptable output level, and how would that affect tone? Not looking for secrets here, just some more understanding.
Look forward to your thoughts. . .
Well gang, it’s time to teach the “curious, recently retired ‘ex-accountant’ layman newbie winder” more. Hopefully, just enough to make him a danger to himself!
How is inductance related to resistance and magnet strength in a pickup in terms of output of the pickup (in layman speak as much as possible)? In the context of guitar pickups, my layman understanding of inductance is the ability of a ferrous metallic object in motion (plucked electric guitar string) to induce current in a conductive material (p/u wire coil) when inside a magnetic field (AlNiCo magnets).
Let’s us one of my recent single coil winds as an example.
Strat style single coil p/u:
Bobbin height: .4375”
Magnets: AlNiCo 5
Wire: 42AWG SPN
Turns: 8,600
Resistance: 6,350 ohms (I am assuming my cheapo multi meter is measuring DCR, but probably not)
Inductance: 2.30 henries (before charging the magnets)
Inductance: 2.60 henries (after charging the magnets)
Back to the question(s). Can there be a valid inductance measurement without the magnets being charged? I’m guessing yes, but that the pickup would not work with the 2.3 henries (from above) without the magnets being charged, even though many spec’s you’ll see on the internet (Fender, et al) will have pickups with inductance values below 2.3 henries. Would it be fair to say that “most” of the inductance reading in henries is attributable to the coil characteristics versus the magnet strength/charge?
In the above case, if the magnetic strength was backed off from the current full charge levels (~ 1,100mT – 1,300mT) to , say half, would the output (measured by the ear listening to the p/u through an amp) be about half, even though the henries may still be in the 2.4 – 2.5 range?
I’m guessing my measurement tools are at least so-so OK as I measured a couple of Fender p/u’s to get some baseline type comparisons and they seem reasonably similar (I think). They measured as follows:
Fender “Texas Specials” in a SRV Signature Series Strat (middle p/u):
Resistance: 6,180 ohms
Inductance: 2.51 henries
Magnet charge: +/- 1200mT (depending on the specific magnet)
Fender Custom Shop “Fat 50’s (middle p/u):
Resistance: 6,150 ohms
Inductance: 2.35 henries
Magnet charge: +/- 1100mT (depending on the specific magnet)
My measurements do not appear to be miles off the published values when you take into consideration that they have been in use for number of years, environmental variables and lower quality test equipment.
With the inductance, what is it in the coil wind (more tension/less tension, more tpl/less tpl, higher/lower bobbin height) that would produce an inductance measurement for a given resistance that is above the manufacturer spec detail even before the p/u is magnetized? How far could you realistically back off a full charge on the magnets and still have an acceptable output level, and how would that affect tone? Not looking for secrets here, just some more understanding.
Look forward to your thoughts. . .
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