As I understand it so far, intermodulation distortion (IMD) is a product of multiple frequencies passing through a non-linear system. Apparently what happens is that the lower frequency modulates the amplitude of the higher frequency, which produces the sum and difference frequencies.
Now, when I see charts showing IMD levels, it usually involves rinning two sine waves through at different frequencies. It shows the IMD products pretty well, but I don't think it tells the whole story.
What about guitar (or bass or any other instrument really). It doesn't produce a sine wave. I'm sure you've heard the IMD products when playing chords; for example playing a fifth through a distorted amp produces a tone an octave below the lower note in the chord. A single note from a guitar consists of multiple frequencies though, which can be analyzed as the sum of multiple sine waves. When you play a note (say an open A-string) through that distorted amp, wouldn't that result in IMD also? There are multiple frequencies present, which is the requirement for IMD.
Simply put, if you play a single note on your guitar through an overdriven amp (or other distortion maker) will there be IMD products as well? Even though it's one note, there are still multiple frequencies present, which should produce some IMD. Is it just at a low level relative to the regular harmonic distortion? Does it have something to do with the harmonic series present? I know I can hear IMD with chords, but I'm not sure if it's there in a single note.
Thanks for any advice and explanation. For some reason I can't quite get the concept. I'd assume it would be there but I'm not totally sure.
Now, when I see charts showing IMD levels, it usually involves rinning two sine waves through at different frequencies. It shows the IMD products pretty well, but I don't think it tells the whole story.
What about guitar (or bass or any other instrument really). It doesn't produce a sine wave. I'm sure you've heard the IMD products when playing chords; for example playing a fifth through a distorted amp produces a tone an octave below the lower note in the chord. A single note from a guitar consists of multiple frequencies though, which can be analyzed as the sum of multiple sine waves. When you play a note (say an open A-string) through that distorted amp, wouldn't that result in IMD also? There are multiple frequencies present, which is the requirement for IMD.
Simply put, if you play a single note on your guitar through an overdriven amp (or other distortion maker) will there be IMD products as well? Even though it's one note, there are still multiple frequencies present, which should produce some IMD. Is it just at a low level relative to the regular harmonic distortion? Does it have something to do with the harmonic series present? I know I can hear IMD with chords, but I'm not sure if it's there in a single note.
Thanks for any advice and explanation. For some reason I can't quite get the concept. I'd assume it would be there but I'm not totally sure.
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